by dirtstrip » Sun May 22, 2011 10:24 am
I might be both.
Several years ago a family member bought Caterpillar stock, which is a publicly traded company. He has no plans to buy a Caterpillar but he thought the stock was cheap and would be higher some time in the future. He wanted an investment and bought the price that was offered for the stock. Today the price is 8-10 times higher. Is he a speculator? If he is then are all individuals purchasing publicly traded stocks, in order to have some investment other than their home and job, speculators that drive the market? Is the problem with those who have no intent to own the commodity which they buy or is the problem that so many do it at once and with such large volume they propel the market direction by their actions. It is possible to regulate the volume part influencing the market, but to eliminate the speculator altogether is to take away those willing to take the risk for others in the production end who cannot stand to take that risk themselves, so a producer sells his future risk at a price and the speculator buys it for a time, holding it and betting the producer is wrong. For every buyer in the market, there must be a seller, right? How does the entire publicly traded capital market system work if you eliminate speculation? Does this apply to price discovery in oil futures?
Dumb and Dummer